In Mark 2:23-28 Jesus uses the term "Son of Man" and "Lord of the Sabbath". Was Jesus referring to himself in this passage? If he was by the former title then he also was by the latter title. In the New Testament only Jesus ever referred to himself by this term, therefore Mark 2 cannot be the exception.
Win $500 in The First-Ever Locke and Lewis Faith and Reason Studio Speech Contest
— A N N O U N C I N G —
The First-Ever John Locke/C.S. Lewis Faith-And-Reason Studio Speech Contest
March 16 and 17 in the CASL Film Studio of UM Dearborn. Register Within.
First Place = $500 Second Place = $300 Third Place = $100